Essay Instructions: Please create a response essay to the question below for a non-western comparative political course. I will send the necessary readings. Please respond with some special examples that reference understanding to the texts.
Jared Diamond and Maralit and Buruma offer sharply diverging explanations for the differences between the “west” and the “non-west”. Briefly summarize their respective arguments. Which one do you find more persuasive, and why? A good answer will demonstrate clear understanding of the two readings and will try to support your preference with logic and/or solid evidence. Do the best you can and make sure you are clear about why you believe what you do. You may draw on the readings, or other information such as the news, other course work, life experience, etc.
Before beginning I have included my responses to some discussions that were given before this essay to give a better understanding of my stance.
What is the west? My view of the term west refers to the freedom of individuals. More specifically the freedom from complete government involvement, in which decisions are balanced by the people and the government. The definition of the west encompasses many different things such as independence, culture, capital wealth, political operation and social ways; which I believe are dependent on the some, but not necessarily all of these things. I sometimes think of the definition of the west to mean its association of individual freedom to prosper in such a society in which values of personal choice have a strong influence in actions. An example of the west can be of the US in which the several states allow gay marriages. Based on my definition of the west, countries that come to mind that are not part of the west include the Middle East, and India. The reason as to why these countries come to mind when thinking of non-western countries is the lack of individual freedom. In the Middle East, men are still viewed upon as superior to women. Women do not have the equal rights as their male counterparts. In western countries there may be some discrimination against women, but it is by no means on the same level as they way women are treated in such non-western countries.
If you do think there are real differences (West vs. non-West), why do you think these differences exist? The piece by Jared Diamond seems to suggest that it's an accident of geography. What do you think about that? If you don't think there are real differences, then what explains in your view some peoples' efforts to differentiate between the two? From my personal definitions of the west and the non-west, there lies a difference between the two. Both of these terms are related in the political sphere, but differ gravely in the amount of personal freedom allowed. There are certainly differences because if there are no real differences between the west vs. non-west then, they would ultimately be the same related things. For this reason, differences amongst the two exist because of how traditions and the function of life operate. Geography plays a small role into the equations of making the west and the non-west with other variables like environmental causes- adaptation, evolution of life. As the meanings of the term west and non-west vary for each other, culture and sociology affect the differences between why these differences exist. As times change the role of geography shifts in importance, but in today’s modern view it seems that geography’s impact on the west and non-west play such small roles, that they affect the differences, but not in such a significant way. Although Diamond suggests that the differences were an “accident of geography”, I don’t think that geography is the primary or the only reason as to why there are differences between the west and the non-west. In the article the Spaniards are depicted as better equipped with everything compared to the Incans who didn’t have all of the “advantages” claimed by the Spaniards, which is proposed as an accident of geography. In the Diamond article he states, "compared with hunter-gatherers, citizens of modern industrialized states enjoy better medical care, lower risk of death by homicide, and a longer life span, but receive much less social support from friendships and extended families”. as evidence compared with hunter-gatherers, citizens of modern industrialized states enjoy better medical care, lower risk of death by homicide, and a longer life span, but receive much less social support from friendships and extended families’, Diamond puts the reader in perspective about these “geographical advantages” that Spaniards had over the Incans. When comparing the two races it is hard to say whether the advantages were due to geography. Reasons like education, technology, religion and cultural values all affect the progression of advancement giving reason to question why Diamond did not agree with other issues like these listed. I understand in a way how Diamond could arrive at this point, but I believe that geography was not the main issue. Both the Incan and the Spaniards had their own uniqueness to each race, both having advantages and disadvantages, but these factors don’t necessarily mean that their differences were because of geography. The combination of factors is ultimately what has made the west different from the non-west.
There are faxes for this order.